Lolcaeser

It's all Greek to me....

It's been a long time since I studied Ancient Greek at school, but I seem to remember that it doesn't have a gerund. Am I remembering correctly?

Context- a discussion on 'arsenokoitai', the word in 1 Corinthinans that's recently been translated as 'homosexuals'. This is based on the principle that the word is made up of 'arsen'- 'man', and 'koite'- 'bed'
It's currently hinging on 'koite'- 1st dec fem noun. The nominative plural is 'koitai'- if I've got the declension right.

Now I've got someone claiming that it's actually the gerund of 'koitomai'- 'I lie'. The writer speaks Modern Greek, which does have gerunds. Am I right about Ancient Greek not having them, and does anyone know if Koine Greek had them?

Debate on this from here-
http://www.christianforums.com/t7449586-20/
and the main debate picks up from here-
http://www.christianforums.com/t7449586-22/#post54372602

I'm also having a bit of a time getting across the fact that the gender of the noun has nothing to do with the sex of the person interacting with it.
Lolcaeser

(no subject)

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Obviously my classics are a bit rusty. I often get the Brontes confused....
Lolcaeser

(no subject)

Am feeling not-playing-well-with-others at the moment, so rather than watch Twilight in order to not enjoy it, I'm watching Hancock and Unbreakable.
Although given some of the shit I've had to deal with over the last couple of years, werewolves and vampires seem like light relief.